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Full question wording

The UK Government is currently seeking to pass the Internal Market Bill. The House of Lords Constitution Committee has stated that the Bill would change the current powers of the Scottish Parliament by allowing the UK Government to override laws passed in Edinburgh, by imposing new restrictions on the Scottish Government in relation to goods and services, and by removing powers from the Scottish Government on state aid. Do you think these reductions in the Scottish Parliament's powers should only take effect if the Scottish people agree to them in a referendum?

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Topics

How Scotland should be governed